UPSC PRELIMS 2018 ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

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30 QUESTIONS ASKED IN UPSC PRELIMS 2018 FROM OUR PRELIMS ME 2018 TEST SERIES. DOWNLOAD UPSC PRELIMS ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION PDF

 

PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2019 WILL STARTS FROM 15 th JULY ONWARD – 32 GS+ 5 CSAT (BOTH ONLINE & OFFLINE)

 

UPSC PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER 2016

 

1. Consider the following statements

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)1 and 3 only
*b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect: The First Loksabha (1952-57): Elections were held for 489 seats. The Indian National Congress (INC) won 364. Only two other parties won double digit seats. The CPI with 16 seats and the Socialist Party with 12 seats.

Statement 2 is correct: The Lok Sabha had no recognised Leader of the Opposition until 1969 . The post was also vacant between 1980 and 1989.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Each house has a LoP – leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house. In Lok sabha, total strength = 545, one tenth = 55.

2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: How do desert plants save water?
Smaller, fewer, and deeper pores — Many desert plants have smaller, fewer, and deeper pores than other plants.
Waxy cover — The leaves and stems of many desert plants have a thick covering that is coated with a waxy substance, allowing them to seal in and protect what moisture they already have.
Little leaves — Most desert plants have small leaves, spikes for leaves, or no leaves at all. The smaller or fewer leaves a plant has, the less water is lost during transpiration since it has less surface area open to the sun and wind.
Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 9- Qn 44)

3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment – Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent; belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent). Statement 1 is correct

During the reference period of July 2012- June 2013, about 45 percentout of the total agricultural households in the country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes (ST). Statement 2 is correct

Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Statement 3 is correct

Source: http://mospi.nic.in/sites/default/files/publication_reports/KI_70_33_19dec14.pdf

4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)1 only
*b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.

The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. Thus statement 2 is correct.

5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: In a landmark ruling on 11 January 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.

6. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Merchant Discount Rate’ sometimes seen in news?
a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
*c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

SOLUTION: The merchant discount rate is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions. The merchant must setup this service and agree to the rate prior to accepting debit and credit cards as payment.

7. What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of ‘The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: NSG membership also means India can begin to commercially produce nuclear power equipment, which it can then even sell to other countries. With access to state­of­the­art nuclear technologies, it can maximize its production benefits.

NSG member will not automatically become a member of “The Treaty on the Non Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 1 Open for All- Qn 7)

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 6- Qn 93)

8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the ‘Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
*d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect. The levy was introduced in the Budget as part of the finance bill and not as a part of Income Tax Act.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Tax credit can’t be claimed.

9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of
GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)1 only
b)2 and 3 only
*c)1 and 3 only
d)1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION:

Statement 1 is correct: The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought
down to 60 per cent by 2023 (comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for States) as against
the existing 49.4 per cent, and 21 per cent respectively.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Union government, which has larger domestic liabilities of 49.23% of GDP
as compared to that of the States (21% of GDP)

Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 293, A State may not without the consent of the Government of
India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by
the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has
been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government.

11.He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
a)Aurobindo Ghosh
b)Bipin Chandra Pal
*c)Lala Lajpat Rai
d)Motilal Nehru

SOLUTION: From the book: Political Thinkers of Modern India: Lala Lajpat Rai By Verinder Grover

10. Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The quantity of the imported oil is almost 60% of total oil consumption in India.Government imposes custom duty on several edible oil, such as palm oil. It was recently hiked.

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
*d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect. Calcutta High Court ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto” while rejecting a claim of citizenship of the accused who was issued the card in view of his long residence in the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India.

13.Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the, correct answer using the code given below :
a)1 only
b)2 and 3 only
c)2 only
*d)1 and 3 only

SOLUTION: Refer the given link below for further information:
http://siberiantimes.com/ecology/casestudy/features/f232-extreme-warnings-issued-that-lake-baikal-could-drain-dry-like-the-aral-sea/

https://www.reuters.com/article/us-russia-water-conflict/in-russia-a-drying-lake-threatens-an-era-of-water-wars-idUSKBN0MC18X20150316

14.’Rule of Law Index’ is released by which of the following?
a)Amnesty International
b)International Court of Justice
c)The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
*d)World Justice Project

SOLUTION: The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index, measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading source for original, independent data on the rule of law.

Source: https://worldjusticeproject.org/our-work/wjp-rule-law-index/wjp-rule-law-index-2017%E2%80%932018

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 10- Qn 9)

15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a) Indian Banks’ Association
b) National Securities Depository Limited
*c) National Payments Corporation of India
d) Reserve Bank of India

SOLUTION: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 4)

 

16. Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank‘s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. CAR is not decided by each individual bank but by RBI on the basis of Basel Committee recommendations. Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018

17. The identity platform Aadhaar provides opens ‘Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)’. What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The API can be integrated into any electronic device. The Aadhaar number and biometric information submitted by an Aadhaar number holder are matched with the biometric information of the said Aadhaar number holder stored in the CIDR. This may be fingerprints-based or iris-based authentication or other biometric modalities based on biometric information stored in the CIDR. Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Option C is the most appropriate.

Source: https://www.mygov.in/sites/default/files/master_image/Draft_Policy%20on%20Open%20APIs.pdf

18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
a) Angola and Zambia
b) Morocco and Tunisia
c) Venezuela and Colombia
*d) Yemen and South Sudan

SOLUTION: Almost 32 million of those acutely hungry people live in four conflict-wracked countries: Somalia, Yemen, South Sudan and northeastern Nigeria, where famine was averted last year.

19.Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
*a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Major Recommendations of Wood’s Dispatch
• An education department was to be established in every province.
• Universities on the model of the London University are established in big cities such as
Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
• At least one Government school is opened in every district.
• Affiliated private schools should be given grant­in­aid.
• The Indian natives should be given training in their mother­tongue also.
• In accordance with the Wood’s despatch, Education Departments were established in every
province and universities were opened at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 A.D.­and
in Punjab in 1882 A.D. and at Allahabad in 1887 A.D.
• The medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher
levels it would be English

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 4- Qn 79)

20.With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

a) Committee on Government Assurances
*b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c) Rules Committee
d) Business Advisory Committee

SOLUTION: Committee on Subordinate Legislation: Scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation.

Source: http://164.100.47.194/loksabha/Committee/Comm_Introductionnew.pdf

21. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Eligibility conditions of teachers are determined by the National Council for Teacher Education. These Regulations may be called the NATIONAL COUNCIL FOR TEACHER EDUCATION (DETERMINATION OF MINIMUM QUALIFICATIONS FOR RECRUITMENT OF TEACHERS IN SCHOOLS) REGULATIONS, 2001. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
statement 2 is correct.
statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: http://www.ncte-india.org/NOTI/noti27.htm

22. Consider the following pairs:
Traditions State
1. Chapchar Kut festival : Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad : Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance : Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a)1 only
*b)1 and 2 only
c)3 only
d)2 and 3 only

SOLUTION: The Chapchar Kut is a festival of Mizoram, India. It is celebrated during March after completion of their most arduous task of Jhum operation i.e., jungle-clearing (clearing of the remnants of burning).

Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891.

Thang Ta is an ancient Manipuri Martial Art developed from the war environment of Manipur and created by the Meitei. Thang Ta was also known as Huyen Lallong which means ‘The art of sword and the spear’.

23. Consider the following statements:
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced Prevention of Food Adulteration
Act, 1954. FSSAI is not under Director General of Health Services. It is an independent
authority under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced
• Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
• Fruit Products Order, 1955
• Meat Food Products Order, 1973
• Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947
• Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
• Solvent Extracted Oil, De­ Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967
• Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992

24. The term ‘two-state solution’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
a) China
*b) Israel
c) Iraq
d) Yemen

SOLUTION: The two-state solution refers to a solution of the Israeli–Palestinian conflict which calls for “two states for two groups of people.” The two-state solution envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, west of the Jordan River. The boundary between the two states is still subject to dispute and negotiation, with Palestinian and Arab leadership insisting on the “1967 borders”, which is not accepted by Israel. The territory of the former Mandate Palestine which shall not form part of the Palestinian State, shall be part of Israeli territory.

25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013; consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Features of National Food Security Act, 2013,
• Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. However, since Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households constitute poorest of the poor, and are presently entitled to 35 kg per household per month, entitlement of existing AAY households will be protected at 35 kg per household per month.

• State-wise coverage: Corresponding to the all India coverage of 75% and 50% in the rural and urban areas, State-wise coverage will be determined by the Central Government. The then Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) has determined the State-wise coverage by using the NSS Household Consumption Survey data for 2011-12.

• Subsidised prices under TPDS and their revision : Foodgrains under TPDS will be made available at subsidised prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for rice, wheat and coarse grains for a period of three years from the date of commencement of the Act. Thereafter prices will be as fixed by the Central Government from time to time, not exceeding MSP. It has been decided by the Government to continue the above mentioned subsidized prices upto June, 2018.

• In case, any State’s allocation under the Act is lower than their current allocation, it will be protected upto the level of average offtake under normal TPDS during last three years, at prices to be determined by the Central Government. Existing prices for APL households i.e. Rs. 6.10 per kg for wheat and Rs 8.30 per kg for rice has been determined as issue prices for the additional allocation to protect the average offtake during last three years.

• Identification of Households : Within the coverage under TPDS determined for each State, the work of identification of eligible households is to be done by States/UTs.

• Nutritional Support to women and children : Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes. Higher nutritional norms have been prescribed for malnourished children upto 6 years of age.

• Maternity Benefit : Pregnant women and lactating mothers will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.

• Women Empowerment : Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.

• Grievance Redressal Mechanism : Grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels. States will have the flexibility to use the existing machinery or set up separate mechanism.

• Cost of intra-State transportation & handling of foodgrains and FPS Dealers’ margin : Central Government will provide assistance to States in meeting the expenditure incurred by them on transportation of foodgrains within the State, its handling and FPS dealers’ margin as per norms to be devised for this purpose.

• Transparency and Accountability : Provisions have been made for disclosure of records relating to PDS, social audits and setting up of Vigilance Committees in order to ensure transparency and accountability.

• Food Security Allowance : Provision for food security allowance to entitled beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals.

• Penalty : Provision for penalty on public servant or authority, to be imposed by the State Food Commission, in case of failure to comply with the relief recommended by the District Grievance Redressal Officer.

Source: http://dfpd.nic.in/Salient-features-National-Food-Security-Act.htm

26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
a) ILO
b) IMF
c) UNCTAD
*d) WTO

SOLUTION: The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (GI Act) is a sui generis Act of the Parliament of India for protection of geographical indications in India. India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Act to comply with the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 2- Qn 64)

27. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
*d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Unlike coal, the auction of mining licenses of non-coal minerals is conducted by the respective state governments. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have two of the three active gold mines. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
Bhilwara in Rajasthan has an iron ore mine. Thus statement 3 is correct.

28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication
29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
*a)Bengaluru
b)Hyderabad
c) Nagpur
d) Pune

SOLUTION:

30. International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
*a) Child labour
b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
d) Gender parity at the workplace

SOLUTION: To take giant step for a child labour free India, India ratified two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 regarding worst forms of Child Labour.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=165604

31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
*c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

SOLUTION: Under Article 110, a Money Bill is not concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Under Article 55(2) (a), the value of the vote of an MLA is based on the population of that State and the number of elected MLAs in that State.

The value of votes of MPs from the LS and the RS is the same. It differs only when the TOTAL VALUE OF MEMBERS of Lok Sabha is greater than TOTAL VALUE OF VOTES OF MEMBERS of Rajya Sabha. Thus Both statements are correct.

33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the `International Atomic Energy Agency?
*a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

SOLUTION: Additional Protocol increases the IAEA’s ability to provide much greater assurance on the absence of undeclared nuclear material and activities in those States.

35. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
*b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. Thus statement 1 and 3 is incorrect.

GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Thus statement 2 is correct.

34. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

SOLUTION: ASEAN has FTA with dialog partners India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.

Source: http://asean.org/asean-economic-community/free-trade-agreements-with-dialogue-partners/

36. Which of the following is/are the aim/ aims of ‘Digital India’ Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
SOLUTION: The vision of Digital India aims to transform the country into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. The programme will be implemented in phases from the current year till 2018. The Digital India is transformational in nature and would ensure that Government services are available to citizens electronically. It would also bring in public accountability through mandated delivery of government’s services electronically, a Unique ID and e-Pramaan based on authentic and standard based interoperable and integrated government applications and data basis.

Digital India aims to provide the much needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas, namely

• Broadband Highways,
• Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity,
• Public Internet Access Programme,
• e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology,
• e-Kranti – Electronic Delivery of Services,
• Information for All,
• Electronics Manufacturing,
• IT for Jobs
• Early Harvest Programmes.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=108926

37. Consider the following pairs:
Towns Country mentioned in news
1. Aleppo -Syria
2. Kirkuk -Yemen
3. Mosul -Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif -Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only

SOLUTION: Kirkuk and Mosul are cities in Iraq.

40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
*b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

SOLUTION: From the writings of Eighteenth-century political theorists John Locke often associated with ‘libertarian’ ideals suggests ‘where there is no law, there is no freedom’.

38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
a) Federal Legislature
*b) Governor General
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governors

SOLUTION: The Viceroy/ Governor General vested with residual powers.

39. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of an Assembly—shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly. Thus statement 1 is correct.
A speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly after fourteen days’ notice of the intention to move such a resolution. But he does not vacate his office on the dissolution of the Assembly. He continues to be the Speaker until immediately before the first sitting of the Assembly after the dissolution. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

41. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.

Article 158(4) – The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his
term of office. Thus Both statements are correct.

42. The well-known painting ‘Bani Thani’ belongs to the
a) Bundi school
b) Jaipur school
c) Kangra school
*d) Kishangarh school

SOLUTION:

43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?
a) An Israeli radar system
b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
*c) An American anti-missile system
d) A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea

SOLUTION: Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or reentry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.

44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
*b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: Tyagaraja was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous kritis.Tyagaraja composed many new janya ragas as well as melakarta raga. He is said to have invented 66 new ragas in his time. Taḷḷapaka Annamacharya was born in May 1408 and died in April 1503. He was a15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Tyagaraja was born on 4 May 1767 and died on 6 January 1847.

46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
*b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

SOLUTION: They are called legal tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the
country for settlement of any kind of transaction.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 10- Qn 98)

45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ‘Rule of Law’?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
*c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: It is note people responsible to government, but the government formed by people’s representative is responsible to legislature. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.

Democracy is the root of a limited government. Under the Doctrine of Limited Government the powers of the government are limited by various factors such as Fundamental Rights, Rule of Law, Federalism, Separation of Powers, Judicial Review, etc Thus statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
a) the opportunity cost is zero.
b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
*d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

SOLUTION: Government is providing public free resources from its revenue and its all revenues are not tax based. Eg: Borrowing, Grants etc are there. Thus option D is the answer.

48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
*c) poverty and unemployment increase.
d) imports grow faster than exports.

SOLUTION: Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP is a positive growth. Positive growth doesn’t always provide positive development as growth is in quantity only and development is a qualitative measure. Growth may be limited to some people in large quantity but rest may in poverty.

49. Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables
1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
*c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: Human capital is the collective skills, knowledge, or other intangible assets of individuals that can be used to create economic value for the individuals, their employers, or their community: Education is an investment in human capital that pays off in terms of higher productivity. Thus Statement 2 and 4 are correct.

50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
a) weak administrative machinery
b) illiteracy
c) high population density
*d) high capital-output ratio

SOLUTION: Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. If a country has poor technology and low efficiency, even high savings, will lead to low
economic growth.

51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The Santhal Revolt took place in 1855-56.This was the first peasant movement which took place in India. It was after the Santhal Revolt (1855-56) that the Santhal Pargana was created, carving out 5,500 square miles from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.

52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
*c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
d) rapid increase in the urban population

SOLUTION: Commercialization of Indian agriculture started post 1813 when the industrial revolution in England gained pace. A major economic impact of the British policies in India was the introduction of a large number of commercial crops such as tea, coffee, indigo, opium, cotton, jute, sugarcane and oilseed.

53. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
*b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

SOLUTION: If the president is satisfied on receipt of a report from the governor or otherwise that a situation has arisen in which the Government in a state cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he / she is empowered to proclaim an emergency. The result would be that:

• President may assume to himself all or any of the functions of the state or he may vest all or any of those functions in the Governor or any other such authority.
• President may declare that powers of the state legislatures shall be exercisable by the parliament.
• President may make any other incidental or consequential provisions necessary to give effect to the object of proclamation.
Note: Suspension of fundamental right arises during national emergency. And It is council of minister is dissolved not state assembly.

54. Consider the following pairs:

Craft Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls – Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery – Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani Saris – Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
*a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

SOLUTION:
• Puthukkuli shawls are made by Todas of Nilgiri hills in Tamil Nadu. Thus, option 1 is correct.
• Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a form of embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar. Thus, option 2 is incorrect.
• Uppada Jamdani Sari is a silk sari style woven in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. Thus, option 3 is incorrect.

55. In which of the following areas GPS technology is used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: GPS has become a widely deployed and useful tool for commerce, scientific uses, tracking, and surveillance. GPS’s accurate time facilitates everyday activities such as banking, mobile phone operations, and even the control of power grids by allowing well synchronized hand-off switching. Thus, all three options are correct.

56. Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: RBI manages securities of both Central and State governments. Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India. The State governments do not issue any treasury bills.

T-Bills are issued on discount to face value, while the holder gets the face value on maturity. The return on T-Bills is the difference between the issue price and face value. Thus, return on T-Bills depends upon auctions.

57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

58. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
a)Exoplanets
b)Cryptocurrency
*c)Cyber attacks
d)Mini satellites

SOLUTION: These are cyber attacks.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 8- Qn 71)

59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

60. The term ‘sixth mass, extinction/sixth extinction’ is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of:
a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
*d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/ misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

SOLUTION: The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.

61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None

SOLUTION: The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) is an independent satellite based regional system developed indigenously by India on par with with US-based GPS, Russia’s Glonass and Galileo developed by Europe. It was renamed ‘Navic’ (Navigation with Indian Constellation).

It provides location tracking within 20 meters of actual positions, especially in 1,500 km area around the country’s borders. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

ISRO opted for seven satellites –three in geostationary and four (as two pairs) in geosynchronous orbits — to provide the best navigation services. Thus statement 1 is correct.

62. Consider the following phenomena:
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: One consequence is the prediction of the phenomenon of gravitational redshift (a shifting of light toward the red end of the spectrum as a result of a gravitational field rather than a relative velocity).

Einstein’s third major insight was that the spacetime curvature is determined by the matter in it. This is a major revolution in our understanding of the nature of geometry. Previously, the geometry of space (and space-time) had been assumed to be fixed and invariant, a purely mathematical construct. Einstein’s proposal meant that space-time geometry varies according to the matter present; consequently geometry became a branch of physics.

The theory explains the behaviour of objects in space and time, and it can be used to predict everything from the existence of black holes, to light bending due to gravity and the behaviour of the planet Mercury in its orbit.

In addition, general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe. Thus all the 3 statements are correct.

63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the TART and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
*b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: DMH (Dhara Mustard Hybrid)-11 is genetically modified variety of Herbicide Tolerant (HT) mustard. It was developed by Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants at Delhi University under Government sponsored project. Thus statement 3 is incorrect and only one option is left. Correct answer is Option B.

64. Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes Context /Topic seen to news

1. Belle II experiment -Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology -Digital/ Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR -Cas9 – Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
a) 1 and 3 only
*b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: The Belle experiment was a particle physics experiment conducted by the Belle Collaboration, an international collaboration of more than 400 physicists and engineers, at the High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) in Tsukuba, Ibaraki Prefecture, Japan.

CRISPR is a dynamic, versatile tool that allows us to target nearly any genomic location and potentially repair broken genes. It can remove, add or alter specific DNA sequences in the genome of higher organisms.CAS-9 (CRISPR-associated protein 9) is an enzyme.

65. Which of the following statements best describes ‘carbon fertilization’?
*a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

SOLUTION: The CO2 fertilization effect or carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect varies depending on the plant species, the temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients.

66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?
a) Border Gateway Protocol
*b) Internet of Things
c) Internet Protocol
d) Virtual Private Network

SOLUTION: Explanation there in the question itself.

67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
*b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Solar energy tariff are fixed by auction/tender floated by Solar Energy Corporation of India (“SECI”). Thus statement 2 is correct.

Thus statement 1 is incorrect.

68.The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
*d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

SOLUTION: By the late 17th century Bengal had begun to emerge as an important source of supplies that the East India Company could purchase Goods like cotton cloth, opium, saltpeter, sugar and silk for sale in Europe.

69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?
a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
*c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

SOLUTION: The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi’s first Satyagraha.Through this movement peasants unrest became a part of India’s National Movement.

70. Who among the following were the founders of the ‘Hind Mazdoor Sabha’ established in 1948?
a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
*d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

SOLUTION: The Hind Mazdoor Sabha is a national trade union centre in India. The HMS was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary.

71. With reference to the religious practices India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
a) Buddhism
*b) Jainism
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism

SOLUTION: Sthanakavasi is a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthanakavasins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Svetambara canon. Svetambarins who are not Sthanakavasins are mostly part of the Murtipujaka sect.

72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble.

Whereas Imambara instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

73.Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?
a) Francois Bernier
*b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
c) Jean de Thevenot
d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

SOLUTION: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French jeweller and traveller of the Mughal period has left a detailed account of Takht-i-Taus (Peacock throne). Peacock throne was a dazzling and spectacular display of Mughal architecture. Its construction was undertaken by the Emperor Shah Jahan and he personally spent a great deal of time and energy in the designing of the Throne.

76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalistand Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3
SOLUTION: All three precede the introduction of English Education in India directly or indirectly. Thus most possible answer is D

74. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
a) Avalokiteshvara
b) Lokesvara
*c) Maitreya
d) Padmapani

SOLUTION: According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).

75. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
*c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
d) To establish British paramount over the Indian States

SOLUTION: Subsidiary Alliance was basically a treaty between the British East India Company and the Indian princely states, by virtue of which the Indian kingdoms lost their sovereignty to the English. It also was a major process that led to the building of the British Empire in India. It was framed by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805. During this time Napolean Bonaparte was advancing towards East, hence, subsidiary alliance would defend against Napoleonic danger. There is no mention about fixed income for company.

77. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
*a)Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
b)Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

SOLUTION: Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from USA.

78. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana’, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill
Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
*c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: It is under ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship.
Source: http://pmkvyofficial.org

79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to ‘Swarajya Sabha’?
*a) All India Home Rule League
b) Hindu Mahasabha
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of India Society

SOLUTION: The Indian Home Rule movement was a movement in British India on the lines of Irish Home Rule movement and other home rule movements. The movement lasted around two years between 1916–1918 and is believed to have set the stage for the independence movement under the leadership of Annie Besant all over India whereas B. G. Tilak participation was limited to western India only.In 1920 All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha.

80. Which among the following events happened earliest?
a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
*b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

SOLUTION:
• Arya Samaj was founded by the sannyasi Dayananda Saraswati on 7 April 1875
• Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859.
• Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882.
• Satyendranath tagore(first to clear ICS) was selected for the Indian Civil Service in June, 1863.

81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
*b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Sand mining leads to saline­water intrusion from the nearby sea to rivers. Thus Salinity increase. Thus statement 1 is incorrect. Only option remaining is Option B.

82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect because A high content of organic matter increases water holding capacity. Only option remaining is Option B.

83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development2002, Johannesburg
*b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

SOLUTION: The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.

PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and supports nations and regions in reframing economic policies and practices around sustainability to foster economic growth, create income and jobs, reduce poverty and inequality, and strengthen the ecological foundations of their economies.

PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training and Research – whose mandates, expertises and networks combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on inclusive green economy, ensuring coherence and avoiding duplication.

84. ‘3D printing’ has applications in which of the following?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
SOLUTION:

86. Why is a plant called ‘Prosopis juliflora’ often mentioned in news?
a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
*b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
d) None of the above

SOLUTION: Seemai Karuvelam (Prosopis juliflora) tree species are native to West Africa. It was brought to Tamil Nadu in 1960s as fuelwood. It disrupts the local ecosystem of its habitation by soaking in all the ground water near it. It is an invasive species that has infiltrated the water bodies and dry lands of Tamil Nadu.

85. Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island is an island located in the Andaman Sea, dominated by Barren Volcano, the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia, and the only active volcano along a chain of volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Barren Island, about 140 km from Port Blair, which is on south Andaman island , is a tourist destination and surrounded by waters ideal for scuba diving and is home to a wide variety of aquatic life.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Barren Island is located north of Great Nicobar Barren Island volcano in 2017, again started spewing lava and ash, according to a team of scientists from the Goa-based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO)

87. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Coral Reefs are most commonly found at shallow depths in tropical waters, but deep water and cold water corals also exist on smaller scales in other areas.

With Reefs like Great Barrier Reef, Australia, Indonesia and Philippines have more than one-third of the world‘s coral reefs.

Coral reef have more diversity than tropical rainforest. Coral reefs are home to 25% of all marine life on the planet. In fact the variety of life supported by coral reefs rivals that of the tropical forests of the Amazon or New Guinea.

88.’Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now’ is an initiative launched by
a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
*c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization

SOLUTION: The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.

Source: https://unfccc.int/climate-action/momentum-for-change/climate-neutral-now

89. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras -William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa -Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College -Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Sanskrit college: Jonathan Duncan
Calcutta madarsa: Warren Hastings
Fort William College: Richard Wellesly

90. Consider the following pairs:
Regions sometimes Country mentioned in news

1. Catalonia – Spain
2. Crimea – Hungary
3. Mindanao – Philippines
4. Oromia – Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
*c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only

SOLUTION: The Catalonia region, in northeastern Spain, is known for the lively beach resorts of Costa Brava as well as the Pyrenees Mountains.

Crimea: Ukraine, Crimea is a peninsula on the northern coast of the Black Sea in Eastern Europe that is almost completely surrounded by both the Black Sea and the smaller Sea of Azov to the northeast.

Mindanao is the second largest island in the Philippines. Mindanao and the smaller islands surrounding it make up the island group of the same name.

Oromia is one of the nine ethnically based regional states of Ethiopia.

91. Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
a) 4 — 1 — 2 — 3
*b) 3 — 2 — 1 — 4
c) 4 — 2 — 1 — 3
d) 3 — 1 — 2 — 4

SOLUTION:
Air India was nationalized in – 1953.
Imperial Bank of India renamed as State Bank of India in – 1955.
The first democratically elected communist government in state of India is kerala in– 1957.
Goa became a part of independent India – 1961.

92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

a)Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
b)Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part
*c)Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
d)Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

SOLUTION: In a unanimous verdict, a nine member Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court declared that privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and thereby a part of the Art-21 of the fundamental rights.
It held that privacy is a natural & inherent right available to all humans and the constitutional recognition is only to make it explicit.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 8- Qn 10)

93. Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
a)1, 2, 3 and 7 only
*b)2, 4, 5 and 6 only
c)1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

SOLUTION: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces MSP for 26 crops; CCEA does not announce MSP for arecanut and coffee.

Source: http://agricoop.nic.in/recentinitiatives/minimum-support-prices-msp-and-bonus-kharif-crops-2017-18-season

http://agricoop.nic.in/recentinitiatives/minimum-support-pricemsp-and-bonus-rabi-crops-2017-18-season-be-marketed-2018-19

95. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the satellite-launch vehicles (rockets) developed by ISRO. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the ‘earth-observation’ or ‘remote-sensing’ satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3 is incorrect: GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.

94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
*a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland

SOLUTION: Pakke Tiger Reserve, also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve, is a Project Tiger reserve in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh in northeastern India.

96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
*b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Capital infusion in public sector banks has not steadily increased in the last decade. For example capital infusion in FY 2009-2010 was 1200 crore, FY 2010-2011 was 20117.23 croere, FY 2012-2013 was 12500 crores, in FY 2014-15 were 6990 crores while in FY 2016-17 were 25000 crores.

Source: https://data.gov.in/resources/capital-infusion-public-sector-banks-government-2009-10-2014-2015

97. Consider the following items
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers material containing advertising
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
*c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: Cereal grains hulled , HSN code 0407 – Birds’ Eggs In Shell Fresh preserved Or Cooked, Newspapers Journals And Periodicals Whether Or Not Illustrated Or Containing Advertising Material.

Fish processed and canned has 5% GST. Live fish and not processed fish has 0% GST. Thus Statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://cbec-gst.gov.in/gst-goods-services-rates.html

98. Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a)1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
SOLUTION: Statement 1 is correct. The Critical Wildlife Habitats have been envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Statement 2 is correct. Baiga tribals become India’s first community to get habitat rights.For several decades, the Baigas were discriminated against and often evicted from forest areas by government agencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing the ―Scheme of Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups(PVTGs) which aims at planning their socio-economic development in a comprehensive manner while retaining the culture and heritage of the community by adopting habitat development approach and intervening in all spheres of their social and economic life, so that a visible impact is made in improvement of the quality of life of PVTGs.

99. Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
*d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
SOLUTION: Plant diseases can be spread by all the above agents.

100.With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements :
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect: Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001 and operated under that ministry.

Statement 2 is correct: APEDA functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)

Statement 3 is correct: In January 2016, Sikkim became India‘s first 100 per cent organic state.

Source: http://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/organic/index.htm

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