UPSC PRELIMS 2018 ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

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30 QUESTIONS ASKED IN UPSC PRELIMS 2018 FROM OUR PRELIMS ME 2018 TEST SERIES. DOWNLOAD UPSC PRELIMS ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION PDF AND  SEE HOW OUR QUESTION CAME IN PRELIMS 2018.

 

PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2019 WILL STARTS FROM 15 th JULY ONWARD – 32 GS+ 5 CSAT (BOTH ONLINE & OFFLINE)

 

UPSC PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER 2016

 

1. Consider the following statements

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)1 and 3 only
*b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect: The First Loksabha (1952-57): Elections were held for 489 seats. The Indian National Congress (INC) won 364. Only two other parties won double digit seats. The CPI with 16 seats and the Socialist Party with 12 seats.

Statement 2 is correct: The Lok Sabha had no recognised Leader of the Opposition until 1969 . The post was also vacant between 1980 and 1989.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Each house has a LoP – leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house. In Lok sabha, total strength = 545, one tenth = 55.

2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: How do desert plants save water?
Smaller, fewer, and deeper pores — Many desert plants have smaller, fewer, and deeper pores than other plants.
Waxy cover — The leaves and stems of many desert plants have a thick covering that is coated with a waxy substance, allowing them to seal in and protect what moisture they already have.
Little leaves — Most desert plants have small leaves, spikes for leaves, or no leaves at all. The smaller or fewer leaves a plant has, the less water is lost during transpiration since it has less surface area open to the sun and wind.
Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 9- Qn 44)

3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment – Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent; belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
*d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent). Statement 1 is correct

During the reference period of July 2012- June 2013, about 45 percentout of the total agricultural households in the country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes (ST). Statement 2 is correct

Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Statement 3 is correct

Source: http://mospi.nic.in/sites/default/files/publication_reports/KI_70_33_19dec14.pdf

4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)1 only
*b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.

The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. Thus statement 2 is correct.

5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: In a landmark ruling on 11 January 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.

6. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Merchant Discount Rate’ sometimes seen in news?
a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
*c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

SOLUTION: The merchant discount rate is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions. The merchant must setup this service and agree to the rate prior to accepting debit and credit cards as payment.

7. What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of ‘The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: NSG membership also means India can begin to commercially produce nuclear power equipment, which it can then even sell to other countries. With access to state­of­the­art nuclear technologies, it can maximize its production benefits.

NSG member will not automatically become a member of “The Treaty on the Non Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 1 Open for All- Qn 7)

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 6- Qn 93)

8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the ‘Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
*d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect. The levy was introduced in the Budget as part of the finance bill and not as a part of Income Tax Act.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Tax credit can’t be claimed.

9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of
GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)1 only
b)2 and 3 only
*c)1 and 3 only
d)1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION:

Statement 1 is correct: The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought
down to 60 per cent by 2023 (comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for States) as against
the existing 49.4 per cent, and 21 per cent respectively.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Union government, which has larger domestic liabilities of 49.23% of GDP
as compared to that of the States (21% of GDP)

Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 293, A State may not without the consent of the Government of
India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by
the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has
been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government.

11.He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
a)Aurobindo Ghosh
b)Bipin Chandra Pal
*c)Lala Lajpat Rai
d)Motilal Nehru

SOLUTION: From the book: Political Thinkers of Modern India: Lala Lajpat Rai By Verinder Grover

10. Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The quantity of the imported oil is almost 60% of total oil consumption in India.Government imposes custom duty on several edible oil, such as palm oil. It was recently hiked.

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
*d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Statement 1 is incorrect. Calcutta High Court ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto” while rejecting a claim of citizenship of the accused who was issued the card in view of his long residence in the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India.

13.Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the, correct answer using the code given below :
a)1 only
b)2 and 3 only
c)2 only
*d)1 and 3 only

SOLUTION: Refer the given link below for further information:
http://siberiantimes.com/ecology/casestudy/features/f232-extreme-warnings-issued-that-lake-baikal-could-drain-dry-like-the-aral-sea/

https://www.reuters.com/article/us-russia-water-conflict/in-russia-a-drying-lake-threatens-an-era-of-water-wars-idUSKBN0MC18X20150316

14.’Rule of Law Index’ is released by which of the following?
a)Amnesty International
b)International Court of Justice
c)The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
*d)World Justice Project

SOLUTION: The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index, measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading source for original, independent data on the rule of law.

Source: https://worldjusticeproject.org/our-work/wjp-rule-law-index/wjp-rule-law-index-2017%E2%80%932018

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 10- Qn 9)

15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a) Indian Banks’ Association
b) National Securities Depository Limited
*c) National Payments Corporation of India
d) Reserve Bank of India

SOLUTION: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 4)

 

16. Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank‘s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. CAR is not decided by each individual bank but by RBI on the basis of Basel Committee recommendations. Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018

17. The identity platform Aadhaar provides opens ‘Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)’. What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: The API can be integrated into any electronic device. The Aadhaar number and biometric information submitted by an Aadhaar number holder are matched with the biometric information of the said Aadhaar number holder stored in the CIDR. This may be fingerprints-based or iris-based authentication or other biometric modalities based on biometric information stored in the CIDR. Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Option C is the most appropriate.

Source: https://www.mygov.in/sites/default/files/master_image/Draft_Policy%20on%20Open%20APIs.pdf

18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
a) Angola and Zambia
b) Morocco and Tunisia
c) Venezuela and Colombia
*d) Yemen and South Sudan

SOLUTION: Almost 32 million of those acutely hungry people live in four conflict-wracked countries: Somalia, Yemen, South Sudan and northeastern Nigeria, where famine was averted last year.

19.Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
*a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: Major Recommendations of Wood’s Dispatch
• An education department was to be established in every province.
• Universities on the model of the London University are established in big cities such as
Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
• At least one Government school is opened in every district.
• Affiliated private schools should be given grant­in­aid.
• The Indian natives should be given training in their mother­tongue also.
• In accordance with the Wood’s despatch, Education Departments were established in every
province and universities were opened at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 A.D.­and
in Punjab in 1882 A.D. and at Allahabad in 1887 A.D.
• The medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher
levels it would be English

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 4- Qn 79)

20.With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

a) Committee on Government Assurances
*b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c) Rules Committee
d) Business Advisory Committee

SOLUTION: Committee on Subordinate Legislation: Scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation.

Source: http://164.100.47.194/loksabha/Committee/Comm_Introductionnew.pdf

21. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Eligibility conditions of teachers are determined by the National Council for Teacher Education. These Regulations may be called the NATIONAL COUNCIL FOR TEACHER EDUCATION (DETERMINATION OF MINIMUM QUALIFICATIONS FOR RECRUITMENT OF TEACHERS IN SCHOOLS) REGULATIONS, 2001. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
statement 2 is correct.
statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: http://www.ncte-india.org/NOTI/noti27.htm

22. Consider the following pairs:
Traditions State
1. Chapchar Kut festival : Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad : Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance : Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a)1 only
*b)1 and 2 only
c)3 only
d)2 and 3 only

SOLUTION: The Chapchar Kut is a festival of Mizoram, India. It is celebrated during March after completion of their most arduous task of Jhum operation i.e., jungle-clearing (clearing of the remnants of burning).

Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891.

Thang Ta is an ancient Manipuri Martial Art developed from the war environment of Manipur and created by the Meitei. Thang Ta was also known as Huyen Lallong which means ‘The art of sword and the spear’.

23. Consider the following statements:
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced Prevention of Food Adulteration
Act, 1954. FSSAI is not under Director General of Health Services. It is an independent
authority under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced
• Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
• Fruit Products Order, 1955
• Meat Food Products Order, 1973
• Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947
• Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
• Solvent Extracted Oil, De­ Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967
• Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992

24. The term ‘two-state solution’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
a) China
*b) Israel
c) Iraq
d) Yemen

SOLUTION: The two-state solution refers to a solution of the Israeli–Palestinian conflict which calls for “two states for two groups of people.” The two-state solution envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, west of the Jordan River. The boundary between the two states is still subject to dispute and negotiation, with Palestinian and Arab leadership insisting on the “1967 borders”, which is not accepted by Israel. The territory of the former Mandate Palestine which shall not form part of the Palestinian State, shall be part of Israeli territory.

25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013; consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Features of National Food Security Act, 2013,
• Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. However, since Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households constitute poorest of the poor, and are presently entitled to 35 kg per household per month, entitlement of existing AAY households will be protected at 35 kg per household per month.

• State-wise coverage: Corresponding to the all India coverage of 75% and 50% in the rural and urban areas, State-wise coverage will be determined by the Central Government. The then Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) has determined the State-wise coverage by using the NSS Household Consumption Survey data for 2011-12.

• Subsidised prices under TPDS and their revision : Foodgrains under TPDS will be made available at subsidised prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for rice, wheat and coarse grains for a period of three years from the date of commencement of the Act. Thereafter prices will be as fixed by the Central Government from time to time, not exceeding MSP. It has been decided by the Government to continue the above mentioned subsidized prices upto June, 2018.

• In case, any State’s allocation under the Act is lower than their current allocation, it will be protected upto the level of average offtake under normal TPDS during last three years, at prices to be determined by the Central Government. Existing prices for APL households i.e. Rs. 6.10 per kg for wheat and Rs 8.30 per kg for rice has been determined as issue prices for the additional allocation to protect the average offtake during last three years.

• Identification of Households : Within the coverage under TPDS determined for each State, the work of identification of eligible households is to be done by States/UTs.

• Nutritional Support to women and children : Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes. Higher nutritional norms have been prescribed for malnourished children upto 6 years of age.

• Maternity Benefit : Pregnant women and lactating mothers will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.

• Women Empowerment : Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.

• Grievance Redressal Mechanism : Grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels. States will have the flexibility to use the existing machinery or set up separate mechanism.

• Cost of intra-State transportation & handling of foodgrains and FPS Dealers’ margin : Central Government will provide assistance to States in meeting the expenditure incurred by them on transportation of foodgrains within the State, its handling and FPS dealers’ margin as per norms to be devised for this purpose.

• Transparency and Accountability : Provisions have been made for disclosure of records relating to PDS, social audits and setting up of Vigilance Committees in order to ensure transparency and accountability.

• Food Security Allowance : Provision for food security allowance to entitled beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals.

• Penalty : Provision for penalty on public servant or authority, to be imposed by the State Food Commission, in case of failure to comply with the relief recommended by the District Grievance Redressal Officer.

Source: http://dfpd.nic.in/Salient-features-National-Food-Security-Act.htm

26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
a) ILO
b) IMF
c) UNCTAD
*d) WTO

SOLUTION: The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (GI Act) is a sui generis Act of the Parliament of India for protection of geographical indications in India. India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Act to comply with the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 2- Qn 64)

27. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
*d) 3 only

SOLUTION: Unlike coal, the auction of mining licenses of non-coal minerals is conducted by the respective state governments. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have two of the three active gold mines. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
Bhilwara in Rajasthan has an iron ore mine. Thus statement 3 is correct.

28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication
29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
*a)Bengaluru
b)Hyderabad
c) Nagpur
d) Pune

SOLUTION:

30. International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
*a) Child labour
b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
d) Gender parity at the workplace

SOLUTION: To take giant step for a child labour free India, India ratified two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 regarding worst forms of Child Labour.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=165604

31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
*c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

SOLUTION: Under Article 110, a Money Bill is not concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: Under Article 55(2) (a), the value of the vote of an MLA is based on the population of that State and the number of elected MLAs in that State.

The value of votes of MPs from the LS and the RS is the same. It differs only when the TOTAL VALUE OF MEMBERS of Lok Sabha is greater than TOTAL VALUE OF VOTES OF MEMBERS of Rajya Sabha. Thus Both statements are correct.

33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the `International Atomic Energy Agency?
*a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

SOLUTION: Additional Protocol increases the IAEA’s ability to provide much greater assurance on the absence of undeclared nuclear material and activities in those States.

35. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
*b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. Thus statement 1 and 3 is incorrect.

GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Thus statement 2 is correct.

34. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

SOLUTION: ASEAN has FTA with dialog partners India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.

Source: http://asean.org/asean-economic-community/free-trade-agreements-with-dialogue-partners/

36. Which of the following is/are the aim/ aims of ‘Digital India’ Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
SOLUTION: The vision of Digital India aims to transform the country into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. The programme will be implemented in phases from the current year till 2018. The Digital India is transformational in nature and would ensure that Government services are available to citizens electronically. It would also bring in public accountability through mandated delivery of government’s services electronically, a Unique ID and e-Pramaan based on authentic and standard based interoperable and integrated government applications and data basis.

Digital India aims to provide the much needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas, namely

• Broadband Highways,
• Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity,
• Public Internet Access Programme,
• e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology,
• e-Kranti – Electronic Delivery of Services,
• Information for All,
• Electronics Manufacturing,
• IT for Jobs
• Early Harvest Programmes.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=108926

37. Consider the following pairs:
Towns Country mentioned in news
1. Aleppo -Syria
2. Kirkuk -Yemen
3. Mosul -Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif -Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only

SOLUTION: Kirkuk and Mosul are cities in Iraq.

40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
*b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

SOLUTION: From the writings of Eighteenth-century political theorists John Locke often associated with ‘libertarian’ ideals suggests ‘where there is no law, there is no freedom’.

38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
a) Federal Legislature
*b) Governor General
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governors

SOLUTION: The Viceroy/ Governor General vested with residual powers.

39. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of an Assembly—shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly. Thus statement 1 is correct.
A speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly after fourteen days’ notice of the intention to move such a resolution. But he does not vacate his office on the dissolution of the Assembly. He continues to be the Speaker until immediately before the first sitting of the Assembly after the dissolution. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

41. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
*c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.

Article 158(4) – The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his
term of office. Thus Both statements are correct.

42. The well-known painting ‘Bani Thani’ belongs to the
a) Bundi school
b) Jaipur school
c) Kangra school
*d) Kishangarh school

SOLUTION:

43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?
a) An Israeli radar system
b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
*c) An American anti-missile system
d) A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea

SOLUTION: Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or reentry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.

44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
*b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: Tyagaraja was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous kritis.Tyagaraja composed many new janya ragas as well as melakarta raga. He is said to have invented 66 new ragas in his time. Taḷḷapaka Annamacharya was born in May 1408 and died in April 1503. He was a15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Tyagaraja was born on 4 May 1767 and died on 6 January 1847.

46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
*b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

SOLUTION: They are called legal tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the
country for settlement of any kind of transaction.

Question asked in our 11 full length test-ME2018 (Test 10- Qn 98)

45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ‘Rule of Law’?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
*c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: It is note people responsible to government, but the government formed by people’s representative is responsible to legislature. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.

Democracy is the root of a limited government. Under the Doctrine of Limited Government the powers of the government are limited by various factors such as Fundamental Rights, Rule of Law, Federalism, Separation of Powers, Judicial Review, etc Thus statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
a) the opportunity cost is zero.
b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
*d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

SOLUTION: Government is providing public free resources from its revenue and its all revenues are not tax based. Eg: Borrowing, Grants etc are there. Thus option D is the answer.

48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
*c) poverty and unemployment increase.
d) imports grow faster than exports.

SOLUTION: Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP is a positive growth. Positive growth doesn’t always provide positive development as growth is in quantity only and development is a qualitative measure. Growth may be limited to some people in large quantity but rest may in poverty.

49. Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables
1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
*c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4

SOLUTION: Human capital is the collective skills, knowledge, or other intangible assets of individuals that can be used to create economic value for the individuals, their employers, or their community: Education is an investment in human capital that pays off in terms of higher productivity. Thus Statement 2 and 4 are correct.

50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
a) weak administrative machinery
b) illiteracy
c) high population density
*d) high capital-output ratio

SOLUTION: Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. If a country has poor technology and low efficiency, even high savings, will lead to low
economic growth.

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